PRACTICE
EXAM 1 – INTRODUCTION TO A&P, CHEMISTRY, CELL
1. The study of the function of the human
body is
a. anatomy b. physiology c.
chemistry d. embryology e. histology
2. The correct order of structural
organization of the body from simple to complex:
a. Chemical, cell, organ, tissue,
organ system, organism
b. Cell, organism, organ, tissue,
chemical, organ system
c. Organism, organ, organ system,
tissue, cell, chemical
d. Cell, tissue, organ, chemical,
organ system, organism
e. Chemical, cell, tissue, organ,
organ system, organism
3. The ventral cavity contains which
cavities?
a. thoracic and abdominopelvic b. cranial and vertebral
c. cranial and thoracic d. abdominal and vertebral e. pleural and cranial
4.
The standard anatomical position does not have
a. the upper extremities at the sides
b. the feet flat c. the body in an upright position
d. palms facing backward e. the body facing
forward
5. The plane which divides the body into
anterior and posterior sections is
a. horizontal b.
parasagittal c. midsagittal d. frontal e.
transverse
6. The stomach is inferior to the
a. large intestine b. heart c. kidneys d. arm e.
bladder
7. The process by which an organism maintains
a relatively constant internal environment within certain physiological limits
is called
a. metabolism b. catabolism c.
homeostasis d. equilibrium e. growth
8. A substance which minimizes fluctuations
in the pH of body fluids is a
a. salt b. base c.
acid d. buffer e. ion
9. A substance that releases hydrogen ions in
solution:
a. salt b. base c.
acid d. lipid e. pH
10.
H-bonding is a force that helps determine the structure of proteins at all
levels except
a. primary b. secondary c.
tertiary d. quarternary
11.
Which of the following is most likely a carbohydrate?
a. C6H12O6 b.
C22H44COOH c.
CO2 d.C2H4NH2
12.
Life is said to be carbon based because carbon atoms make up
a. carbohydrates b. lipids c. proteins d. nucleic acids e. a,b,c, and d
13. Pericardial
fluid would be found
a. inside the heart b. outside the parietal serosa c.
between visceral and parietal pericardium
d. between visceral pericardium and
heart e. between pleural membranes
14.
The sum of all the chemical reactions occurring in the body:
a. anabolism b. catabolism c. homeostasis d. metabolism e. exchange reactions
15.
The bond formed by sharing electron pairs is
a. covalent b. ionic c.
hydrogen d. organic e. inorganic
16.
The most abundant inorganic substance in cells is
a. sodium b. protein c.
water d. carbohydrates e. lipid
17.
The sum of the protons and neutrons in an atom is known as
a. atomic number b. atomic weight(mass number) c. chemical formula
d. isotope e. oxidation number
18.
Which of the following is a disaccharide?
a. sucrose b. fructose c.
glucose d. glycogen e. deoxyribose
19.
Nitrogen is always found in which molecule?
a. inorganic b. carbohydrate c.
lipid d. protein e.
cholesterol
20. A
triglyceride has
a. 1 glycerol and 3 fatty acids b. 3 glycerols and 1 fatty acid
c. 3 glycerols and 3 fatty acids d. 1 glycerol and 1 fatty acid
21.
The sugar in RNA is
a. ribose b. deoxyribose c. phosphate d. uracil e. glucose
22.
Stored energy is in the form of
a. a peptide bond b. ATP c. DNA d. kinetic energy e. activation energy
23.
More hydrogen ions would be in a solution with a pH of
a. 2.5 b. 4.4 c.
7.35 d. 8.2 e. 12
24.
The term that would identify a serosa membrane as being the layer nearest the
walls of a body cavity is
a. visceral b. parietal c.
pleural d. pericardial
25.
Which of the following is NOT correct concerning DNA and RNA?
a. They are nucleic acids. b. They both have
a pentose sugar.
c. They contain phosphate groups. d. They are inorganic
molecules.
e. They both contain nitrogenous
bases.
26.
A feedback system reverses the direction
of the initial condition.
a. positive b. negative c.
stimulatory d. neutral e. homeostasis
27. A
polyunsaturated fat has
a. no double bonds between carbon
atoms b. more than one double bond
between carbon atoms
c. many hydrogens d. more than one double bond between
hydrogen atoms
e. many carbons
28. A
medial position is a position that is
a. away from the midline b. closer to the midline c. toward the head d. toward the
front e. near the
back
29.
DNA does not have
a. Adenine b. Uracil c.
Thymine d. Guanine e. Cytosine
30.
The amino acid sequence of a protein is known as the
a. primary structure b. secondary structure c. tertiary structure d.quartenary structure
31.
The building blocks or units joined in a protein are
a. monosaccharides b. nucleotides c.
amino acids d. phosphate groups e. fatty acids
32.
Anything that occupies space and has mass is considered
a. cells b. gas c.
matter d. energy e. solid
33. A
chemical reaction that builds up or makes bonds is
a. catabolic b. anabolic c.
decomposition d. exchange e. oxidation
34.
The bond that joins amino acids to form a protein:
a. denaturation b. phosphate bonds c. nucleotides d. peptide bonds
35. If
an individual is in homeostasis which of the following is not likely present?
a. rest b. stress c. disease d. metabolism
36.
Which of the following would be the smallest in size?
a. atom b. ion c.
molecule d. electron e. proton
37.
Neutral atoms contain the same number of electrons as
a. protons b. neutrons c.
cations d. anions
38.
Negatively charged particles that move in orbits around the atomic nucleus are
a. anions b. cations c. protons d. neutrons e.
electrons
39.
The secondary structure of a protein would not be
a. beta pleated sheets b. alpha helix
c. held by hydrogen bonds d. several subunits joined
together
40.
When salts are dissolved in water they dissociate into particles called
a. acids b. electrolytes c. bases d.
electrons e. buffers
41.
The study of the structure of the human body is
a. physiology b. anatomy c.
pathology d. chemistry e. cytology
42. A
chemical bond formed by transferring electrons is
a. covalent b. ionic c.
peptide d. hydrogen e. phosphate
43. A
feedback mechanism to regulate blood glucose levels should
a. make glucose higher in the blood
when the signal is low
b. make glucose low in the blood
when the signal is low
c. put glucose into cells
d. make new glucose
44. A
1 M solution of NaCl would contain grams of NaCl in
1 liter of water.
a. 58 b. 28 c.116 d.98 e.48
45.
Positive charged atoms are
a. cations b. anions c.
electrons d. protons
46.
Water is a(an)
a. polar molecule b. nonpolar molecule c.
organic compound d. element e. solute
47.
The element iodine has the symbol I (Group
VII (7)).
Which of the following is correct for I?
a. 74 electrons, 74 protons, and 53
neutrons b. 127 electrons, 53 protons, and
74 neutrons
c. 53 electrons, 53 protons, and 53
neutrons d. 53 electrons, 53 protons, and
74 neutrons
e. 53 electrons, 74 protons, and 74
neutrons
48. If
a patient complains of pain in the right hypochondriac region you would request
that they remove their
a. hat b. shirt c.
pants d. shoes e.nothing,
they are always complaining
49.
Which region of the abdomen is inferior to the umbilicus?
a. hypergastric b. hypogastric c. right lumbar d.
left lumbar e. all are inferior
50.
All of the following will increase the rate of a chemical reaction except
a. an enzyme b. decreasing temperature c. smaller size molecules
d. all increase the rate of a
reaction
51. A
position that is nearer to the point of attachment to the body is said to be
a. distal b. proximal c.
superficial d. lateral e. medial
52.
Which of the following would be in a good blood buffer?
a. a strong acid b. a strong base
c. carbonic acid and sodium
bicarbonate d. sodium chloride and
hydrochloric acid
53. An
enzyme/substrate complex yields a product and
a. hydrogen b. an unchanged enzyme c. a denatured enzyme d.
a substrate
54.
The storage form of glucose in the body is as
a. glycogen b. enzymes c.
fat d. ATP e. sucrose
55. If
an element in group I of the periodic table combines with an element in group
VII the bond is
a. covalent b. ionic c.
hydrogen
d. peptide e. these elements would not form a bond
56.
Organs in the ventral body cavity:
a. brain, spinal cord, heart b. heart, liver, stomach, spinal cord
c. heart, lungs, stomach, pancreas d. brain, spinal cord
57. A
heart surgeon would enter this portion of the ventral body cavity:
a. pleural b. mediastinum c.
pelvic d. cranial e. abdominal
58.
The arms would be located in which region of the body?
a. axial b. mediastinum c.
vertebral d. abdominal e. appendicular
59.
Which of the following best describes the relationship between structure and
function?
a. Structure of an organ determines
its function. b. Very few
structures are related to function.
c. They are related only under
stressful conditions. d. They are not
related.
60.
The head is to the neck.
a. lateral b. inferior c.
medial d. superior e. distal
61.
DNA is in an orderly sequence of
a. nucleotides c. fatty acids d. nucleic acids d.
amino acids e. monosaccharides
62.
Which of the nitrogenous bases will bond with guanine?
a. Adenine b. Cytosine c.
Uracil d. Thymine e. Guanine
63.
Which solution is acid?
a. H20 b. H2O + Na+
+ Cl- c. H20 + H+ + Cl- d. Na+ +OH- + H2O
64.
The basic structural and functional unit of life:
a. molecule b. cell c.
tissue d. organ e. brain
65.
The molecular formula H2O means
a. An atom of water contains 2
hydrogen molecules and 1 oxygen molecule.
b. A molecule of water contains 2
hydrogen atoms and 1 oxygen atom.
c. An atom of water contains 1
hydrogen molecule and 2 oxygen molecules.
d. A molecule of water contains 1
hydrogen atom and 2 oxygen atoms.
66.
Which of the following is not used to characterize a living system?
a. movement b. reproduction c.
metabolism d. responsiveness e. structure
67.
How are H atoms bonded to the O atom between two water molecules?
a. covalent bonds b. ionic bonds c. H-bonds d. phosphate bonds e. peptide bonds
68.
The surface of the organs in the abdominopelvic cavity are lined by the
a. visceral pericardium b. parietal pericardium
c. visceral peritoneum d. parietal peritoneum e. visceral pleura
69.
The lungs are situated in this division of the thoracic cavity:
a. mediastinum b. pleural c. cranial d. ventral e.
dorsal
70.
The thin muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities is the
a. esophagus b. trachea c.
diaphragm d. peritoneum e. pancreas
71. The plasma membrane is
a. a double membrane. b. a phospholipid
bilayer. c. a bilayer of glycoproteins.
d. separated into a bilayer by
cholesterol molecules. e. all of the above
72. Molecules move up a concentration
gradient by
a. active transport b. facilitative diffusion c. osmosis d.
dialysis
73. A hypertonic solution is one that is
a. higher in salt concentration than
body fluids b. similar to
intracellular fluid
c. lower in solute concentration d. normal saline
74.
The apical surface of certain plasma membranes may contain
extensions to move substances over the
cell surface called
a. microtubules b. flagella c. glycocalyx d. microvilli e.
cilia
75.
Smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum differ in that rough ER has
a. ribosomes b.
cisternae c. vesicles d.
lipid synthesis e. phospholipid
membrane
76.
The process of transcription does not directly use
a. DNA b. tRNA c. mRNA d. enzymes
77.
When a cell's membrane is said to be polarized it has a +60mV charge inside the
cell.
a. True b. False
78.
The chromatid pairs line up on the cell's center during which phase?
a. metaphase b. anaphase c.
prophase d. telophase e. interphase
79. An
increase in pressure will move substances through a membrane by:
a. osmosis b. filtration
c. simple diffusion d. active transport e. facilitated diffusion
80.
The plasma membrane is considered to be
a. semipermeable b. impermeable c. permeable d.
selectively permeable
81.
The left lower quadrant includes portions of each of the following except:
a. left hypochondriac region b. umbilicus region c. hypogastric region d. left iliac region
82.
Most of a cells' energy is generated in the
a. nucleus b. mitochondria c.
cytoplasm d. plasma membrane e. Golgi
83.
Water movement across a cell's membrane occurs by
a. filtration b. facilitated diffusion c. osmosis
d. active transport e. diffusion through the phospholipid
bilayer
84.
The hydrophobic region of the plasma membrane is
a. phosphate head groups b. lipid tail groups c. faces the intracellular compartment
d. polar
85.
Digestive enzymes are found in the
a. cytoplasm b. lysosome c. nucleus
d. mitochondria e.
Golgi apparatus
86. A
red blood cell will rupture if placed in this solution.
a. isotonic b. hypertonic c.
hypotonic d. cryotonic
e. b and c will cause cell to burst
87.
The function of tRNA is to
a. transfer
the appropriate amino acid to the ribosome
b. code
for the appropriate amino acid in the nucleus
c. transport the message from the
nucleus d. transfer the protein out of
the cytoplasm
88.
The resting membrane potential is maintained by
a. letting sodium enter the cell b. letting potassium enter the cell
c. the action of the Na-K ATPase
pump d. keeping a positive
intracellular charge
89.
Sodium rushing into a cell will cause the cell to become
a. polarized b. depolarized c.
repolarized d. negative
90.
The chromatids suddenly separate during
a. metaphase b. prophase c.
telophase d. anaphase e. telophase
91.
DNA replicates during
a. metaphase b. telophase c.
prophase d. anaphase e. interphase
92.
Modification, packaging and sorting proteins occurs in the
a. Golgi apparatus b. Smooth ER c.
Rough ER d. lysosome e. nucleus
93. A
protein which is embedded in the phospholipid bilayer and may form a
channel across the plasma
membrane is a(an)
a. peripheral protein b. glycoprotein c.
glycocalyx d. integral
protein
94. In
this process a protein carrier is used to transport a molecule down its
concentration gradient:
a. filtration b. facilitated diffusion c.
simple diffusion d.
active transport
95.
The active process where large particles are engulfed by the cell is
a. pinocytosis b. exocytosis c.
active transport d. phagocytosis e. osmosis
96.
All of the following have functions directly in mitosis except
a. centromeres b.
centrioles c. spindle d. chromosomes e. DNA polymerase
97.
Without using ATP, a molecule will diffuse from an area of its
a. high concentration to an area of
low concentration
b. low concentration to an area of
high concentration
c. positive charges to an area of
negative charges
d. negative charges to an area of
positive charges
98.
Which of the following contains a double membrane?
a. mitochondria b. nucleus c. plasma membrane d.
a and b e. a,b, and
c
99.
This process does not occur in the nucleus:
a. translation b. DNA "unzipping" to
form the DNA template
c. transcription d. DNA replication
100.
The nuclear membrane degrades during
a. telophase b. anaphase c. metaphase d. prophase e.
interphase
101.
Cytoplasmic division is called
a. mitosis b. meiosis c.
cytokinesis d. telophase e. interphase
102.
Nuclear division to form daughter cells which are genetically identical to the
parent cell
a. meiosis b. cytokinesis c. Interphase d. mitosis e.
fission
103.
Which of the following is not true for the nucleus of a cell?
a. Nuclear pores are channels
through the nuclear envelope.
b. DNA is wrapped around histones
and make up the chromatin.
c. Nucleoli are present in the
nucleus.
d. It is the site of protein
synthesis.
e. All of these are true for the
nucleus.
104.
DNA replication
a. is necessary for transcription to
occur.
b. occurs only in translationally
active area.
c. is spontaneous, not requiring
enzyme action.
d. can also be called mitosis or
cell division.
e. is necessary for production of
identical daughter cells.
105.
The functioning sodium/potassium pump requires
a. ATP b. mitosis c.
translation d. depolarization e. transcription
106.
Which structures are fingerlike projections from a cells membrane that greatly
increase the surface area for
absorption of cells?
a. cilia b. flagella c.
microvilli d. glycocalyx e. desmosomes
107.
Place the following in the correct order as they participate in the
manufacturing of proteins.
1. tRNA
2. DNA
3. mRNA
4. ribosome
5. nuclear pore
a. 2,3,4,5,1 b. 2,3,5,4,1 c.
2,3,1,5,4 d. 5,2,3,4,1 e. 3,2,5,1,4
108.
If the nucleotide or base sequence of the DNA strand used as a template is
A-C-G-T-T then the sequence of mRNA
would be
a. T-G-C-A-A
b. A-C-G-T-T
c. U-G-C-A-A
d. G-U-A-C-C
e. A-C-G-U-U
1.B 11.A 21.A 31.C 41.B 51.B 61.A
2.E 12.E 22.B 32.C 42.B 52.C 62.B
3.A 13.C 23.A 33.B 43.A 53.B 63.C
4.D 14.D 24.B 34.D 44.A 54.A 64.B
5.D 15.A 25.D 35.C 45.A 55.B 65.B
6.B 16.C 26.B 36.D 46.A 56.C 66.E
7.C 17.B 27.B 37.A 47.D 57.B 67.C
8.D 18.A 28.B 38.E 48.B 58.E 68.C
9.C 19.D 29.B 39.D